LU LLB 3 Year Entrance Previous Year Question Paper Pattern – Model Paper Set 1 (2027) with Answers

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Q1. Which of the following is true about a Money Bill?

1. (A) It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
2. (B) It can be amended by the Rajya Sabha
3. (C) It is certified as a Money Bill by the President
4. (D) It needs a joint sitting to be passed

Q2. "Refusal of bail in murder case without reasonable ground amount to violation of Article-21" held in which case?

1. (A) Babu Singh v. State of U.P
2. (B) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
3. (C) M.H. Haskot v. State of Maharashtra
4. (D) D.B.M. Patnik v. State of A.P

Q3. Preamble of Indian Constitution name our country

1. (A) Arya Desh
2. (B) India
3. (C) Hindustan
4. (D) India, that is Bharat

Q4. The guardian of fundamental rights is

1. (A) Judiciary
2. (B) Parliament
3. (C) Executive
4. (D) None of these

Q5. Before the abrogation of Article 370 in 2019, which state of India had its own separate constitution?

1. (A) Jammu & Kashmir
2. (B) Goa
3. (C) Tamil Nadu
4. (D) Himachal Pradesh

Q6. Writ of quo warranto can be filed by

1. (A) an executive in his official capacity
2. (B) any private person whether aggrieved or not
3. (C) Only (A) and
4. (D) any person aggrieved by public office

Q7. Which of the following is called as 'Case of Hawker's Rights'?

1. (A) State of M.P. V. Baldeo Prasad
2. (B) State of M.P. V. Bharat Singh
3. (C) P.A. Inamdar V. State of Maharashtra
4. (D) Sodan Singh V. New Delhi Municipal Corporation

Q8. A money bill can be originated

1. (A) Only in the Lok Sabha
2. (B) In both houses simultaneously
3. (C) Only in the Rajya Sabha
4. (D) At the joint session of both houses

Q9. A writ of certiorari is issued against

1. (A) the executive, to perform a public duty
2. (B) Parliament, to stop proceedings in the House
3. (C) a lower court or tribunal, to quash an order passed without jurisdiction
4. (D) a private individual

Q10. The expression 'minority' in Article 30 of the Constitution of India means any community which is

1. (A) It is determined on the basis of Census
2. (B) Less than 40% of the population of a particular State as a whole
3. (C) Less than 50% of the population of a particular State as a whole
4. (D) It is determined on the basis of the entire population of the country

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Q11. Preamble of the Constitution was amended and the words "Soverign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic" were substituted for "Sovereign Democratic Republic" vide

1. (A) 44th Amendment w.e.f. 20.6.1979
2. (B) 93rd Amendment w.e.f. 20.11.2006
3. (C) 42nd Amendment w.e.f. 3.1.1977
4. (D) 85th Amendment w.e.f. 17.6.1995

Q12. The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed by

1. (A) the Chief Justice of India
2. (B) the Chief Minister of the state
3. (C) the President of India
4. (D) the Governor of the state

Q13. A bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after

1. (A) It is passed by both the Houses
2. (B) The Supreme Court has declared it to be within the competence of the Union Parliament
3. (C) The Prime minister has signed it
4. (D) The president has given his Assent

Q14. The provisions for appointment to District Judges are prescribed in

1. (A) Part-III of the Constitution of India III
2. (B) Part-V Chapter VI of the Constitution of India
3. (C) Part-VI Chapter VI of the Constitution of India
4. (D) Part-VI Chapter V of the Constitution of India

Q15. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution is related with the reservation in private educational institutions?

1. (A) 93rd
2. (B) Ninety-second Amendment
3. (C) 42nd
4. (D) None of the above

Q16. A Governor must be: I. a citizen of India II. of 30 years III. Not be a Member of Parliament or State Legislature

1. (A) I and III
2. (B) I, II and III
3. (C) I and II
4. (D) I only

Q17. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Premble from the

1. (A) French Constitution
2. (B) Italian Constitution
3. (C) Constitution of USA
4. (D) Canadian Constitution

Q18. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended by the

1. (A) President
2. (B) Governor
3. (C) Law Minister
4. (D) Prime Minister

Q19. Power to constitute new states and determination of its boundaries vests in _____ _________

1. (A) Governor
2. (B) Parliament
3. (C) President
4. (D) Supreme Court of India

Q20. According to our constitution, the Rajya Sabha

1. (A) is dissolved once in two years.
2. (B) is not subject to dissolution
3. (C) is dissolved every six years.
4. (D) is dissolved every five years.

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Q21. The Chauhan ruler defeated by Muhammad Ghori in the Second Battle of Tarain (1192) was

1. (A) Rana Kumbha
2. (B) Rana Sanga
3. (C) Prithviraj Chauhan
4. (D) Jaichand

Q22. Amir Khusrow wrote his famous masanavi ‘Ashiqa’ on the order of

1. (A) Rani Kamla Devi
2. (B) Khizra Khan
3. (C) Alauddin Khilji
4. (D) Rai Karan

Q23. The Gupta gold coins were known as

1. (A) Dramma
2. (B) Karsapana
3. (C) Niska
4. (D) Dinar

Q24. Which one of the following was a land measure in Gupta period?

1. (A) Nivartana
2. (B) Dharaka
3. (C) Karsha
4. (D) Vimsopaka

Q25. Coins of which Muslim ruler have been image of Devi Lakshmi?

1. (A) Muhammad Ghori
2. (B) Iltutmish
3. (C) Alauddin Khilji
4. (D) None of these

Q26. The Scientific Society was founded by

1. (A) Wilton Oldham
2. (B) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
3. (C) Lord Cornwallis
4. (D) Raja Shiv Prasad

Q27. Who is the most important God in Rigaveda?

1. (A) Vishnu
2. (B) Indra
3. (C) Agni
4. (D) Varun

Q28. The ‘Tibb-i-Sikandari’, which was compiled from Sanskrit sources dealt with

1. (A) Astronomy
2. (B) Philosophy
3. (C) Music
4. (D) Medicine

Q29. The Sufi doctrine of 'Wahdat-ul-Wujud' (Unity of Being) is associated with

1. (A) Sufism
2. (B) Jainism
3. (C) Sikhism
4. (D) Zoroastrianism

Q30. The three kingdoms of the Sangam Age were Chera, Chola and

1. (A) Satavahana
2. (B) Chalukya
3. (C) Pallava
4. (D) Pandya

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Q31. To whom of his following disciples did Buddha preach his last sermon?

1. (A) Upali
2. (B) Sariputra
3. (C) Subhadra
4. (D) Anand

Q32. The first metal to be used by human beings was

1. (A) Bronze
2. (B) Copper
3. (C) Gold
4. (D) Iron

Q33. Who was the envoy of British king James I at the court of Jahangir?

1. (A) William Hawkins
2. (B) William Finch
3. (C) Edward Terry
4. (D) Pietra Della Vella

Q34. The founder of the Tughlaq dynasty was

1. (A) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
2. (B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
3. (C) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
4. (D) Khizr Khan

Q35. When was the East India Company brought under the parliamentary control?

1. (A) 1784
2. (B) 1793
3. (C) 1773
4. (D) None of these

Q36. The largest desert in the world (a cold desert) is

1. (A) Antarctica
2. (B) the Sahara
3. (C) the Gobi
4. (D) the Arctic tundra

Q37. The southernmost point of mainland India is

1. (A) Kibithu
2. (B) Kanyakumari
3. (C) Rann of Kutch
4. (D) Indira Point

Q38. The state with the highest population density in India (2011 Census) is

1. (A) West Bengal
2. (B) Bihar
3. (C) Kerala
4. (D) Uttar Pradesh

Q39. The largest inland water body (lake) in the world is the

1. (A) Lake Victoria
2. (B) Lake Superior
3. (C) Dead Sea
4. (D) Caspian Sea

Q40. The Kaveri river finally drains into the

1. (A) Indian Ocean
2. (B) Gulf of Khambhat
3. (C) Bay of Bengal
4. (D) Arabian Sea

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Q41. The Durand Line forms the boundary between Pakistan and

1. (A) Iran
2. (B) China
3. (C) India
4. (D) Afghanistan

Q42. The longest mountain range in the world is the

1. (A) Andes
2. (B) Himalayas
3. (C) Alps
4. (D) Rockies

Q43. The largest planet in the solar system is

1. (A) Saturn
2. (B) Jupiter
3. (C) Earth
4. (D) Neptune

Q44. The country known as the 'Land of the Rising Sun' is

1. (A) Norway
2. (B) Japan
3. (C) Thailand
4. (D) China

Q45. The highest peak of the Western Ghats is

1. (A) Doda Betta
2. (B) Mahabaleshwar
3. (C) Anamudi
4. (D) Kalsubai

Q46. The smallest planet in the solar system is

1. (A) Pluto
2. (B) Venus
3. (C) Mercury
4. (D) Mars

Q47. The river known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' is the

1. (A) Kosi
2. (B) Son
3. (C) Damodar
4. (D) Gandak

Q48. The largest state of India by area is

1. (A) Madhya Pradesh
2. (B) Rajasthan
3. (C) Uttar Pradesh
4. (D) Maharashtra

Q49. Wheat and gram, sown in winter, are examples of

1. (A) Rabi crops
2. (B) cash crops
3. (C) Kharif crops
4. (D) Zaid crops

Q50. The Sardar Sarovar dam is built on the river

1. (A) Tapti
2. (B) Narmada
3. (C) Sabarmati
4. (D) Mahi

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Q51. The purest crystalline form of carbon is

1. (A) graphite
2. (B) diamond
3. (C) coal
4. (D) charcoal

Q52. The structural and functional unit of life is the

1. (A) organ
2. (B) cell
3. (C) atom
4. (D) tissue

Q53. The number of chambers in the human heart is

1. (A) 3
2. (B) 5
3. (C) 4
4. (D) 2

Q54. The largest organ of the human body is the

1. (A) lungs
2. (B) skin
3. (C) heart
4. (D) liver

Q55. The neutral particle present in the nucleus of an atom is the

1. (A) electron
2. (B) neutron
3. (C) ion
4. (D) proton

Q56. A good conductor of electricity among the following is

1. (A) rubber
2. (B) glass
3. (C) copper
4. (D) wood

Q57. The branch of biology dealing with the study of plants is

1. (A) ecology
2. (B) botany
3. (C) genetics
4. (D) zoology

Q58. The control centre of the cell is the

1. (A) mitochondria
2. (B) cytoplasm
3. (C) vacuole
4. (D) nucleus

Q59. The positively charged particle in an atom is the

1. (A) electron
2. (B) proton
3. (C) photon
4. (D) neutron

Q60. A body moving in a circular path at constant speed has a

1. (A) constant velocity
2. (B) changing velocity
3. (C) zero acceleration
4. (D) constant momentum

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Q61. The 'powerhouse of the cell' is the

1. (A) mitochondria
2. (B) Golgi body
3. (C) ribosome
4. (D) nucleus

Q62. The vitamin synthesised in human skin in sunlight is

1. (A) Vitamin C
2. (B) Vitamin K
3. (C) Vitamin D
4. (D) Vitamin A

Q63. The main component of CNG and biogas is

1. (A) butane
2. (B) propane
3. (C) methane
4. (D) ethane

Q64. The atomic number of an element equals the number of

1. (A) electrons and neutrons
2. (B) protons
3. (C) neutrons
4. (D) neutrons minus protons

Q65. The SI unit of temperature is the

1. (A) Joule
2. (B) Celsius
3. (C) Fahrenheit
4. (D) Kelvin

Q66. Who was sworn in for a second term as the Sikyong (President) of the Central Tibetan Administration in May 2026?

1. (A) Penpa Tsering
2. (B) Sonam Norbu
3. (C) Tenzin Gyatso
4. (D) Lobsang Sangay

Q67. According to the Bloomberg Billionaires Index 2026, who is the world's richest person?

1. (A) Elon Musk
2. (B) Larry Page
3. (C) Smriti Mandhana
4. (D) Jeff Bezos

Q68. Which UN agency works for children's welfare all over the world?

1. (A) UNESCO
2. (B) UNDP
3. (C) UNICEF
4. (D) UNFPA

Q69. Deuri handloom products, woven for generations by the Deuri tribe, received a GI tag. These products belong to which state?

1. (A) Madhya Pradesh
2. (B) Gujarat
3. (C) Assam
4. (D) Chhattisgarh

Q70. The white ‘Bonde’ of Kamarpukur of which state has got the Geographical Indication (GI) tag?

1. (A) Gujarat
2. (B) Rajasthan
3. (C) West Bengal
4. (D) Madhya Pradesh

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Q71. Under the India–UAE agreement signed in May 2026, the UAE's (ADNOC's) participation in India's Strategic Petroleum Reserves is to be raised to how many barrels?

1. (A) 5 million
2. (B) 10 million
3. (C) 30 million
4. (D) 100 million

Q72. Who became the 53rd Chief Justice of India (CJI)?

1. (A) Justice Surya Kant
2. (B) Justice Vikram Nath
3. (C) Justice Dipankar Datta
4. (D) Justice M.M. Sundresh

Q73. Russian President Vladimir Putin visited India in December 2025 for which India–Russia Annual Summit?

1. (A) 21st
2. (B) 23rd
3. (C) 24th
4. (D) 22nd

Q74. The Central Government has approved a financial package of ₹37,500 crore to accelerate coal gasification; under this initiative, what is the targeted volume of gasification set for the year 2030?

1. (A) 100 million tonnes
2. (B) 200 million tonnes
3. (C) 400 million tonnes
4. (D) 50 million tonnes

Q75. In which district of Uttarakhand, a whole village was swept away due to cloudburst, killing many and leaving many missing?

1. (A) Pithoragarh
2. (B) Haridwar
3. (C) Uttarkashi
4. (D) Chamoli

Q76. What is the full form of PPP in economics?

1. (A) Purchasing Power Parity
2. (B) Price Parity Programme
3. (C) Public Private Partnership
4. (D) Per-capita Purchasing Power

Q77. In February 2026, Peru's Congress elected whom as interim President after removing José Jerí from office?

1. (A) Dina Boluarte
2. (B) Keiko Fujimori
3. (C) Pedro Castillo
4. (D) José María Balcázar

Q78. Angkor Vat, the world's largest Hindu temple, is located in which country?

1. (A) Vietnam
2. (B) Thailand
3. (C) Cambodia
4. (D) Indonesia

Q79. The Supreme Court directed which state to declare about 31,468 hectares of the Saranda forest as a wildlife sanctuary?

1. (A) Jharkhand
2. (B) Uttar Pradesh
3. (C) Odisha
4. (D) West Bengal

Q80. Which states are the main producers of jute in India?

1. (A) Punjab, Haryana
2. (B) Kerala, Karnataka
3. (C) Gujarat, Maharashtra
4. (D) Bihar, West Bengal, Odisha

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Q81. What is the full form of WEF?

1. (A) World Education Foundation
2. (B) World Energy Forum
3. (C) World Economic Forum
4. (D) World Environment Fund

Q82. In which of these European countries, wearing of burqa has been banned from 1 January 2025?

1. (A) Switzerland
2. (B) Italy
3. (C) Germany
4. (D) Malaysia

Q83. From 1 January 2026, India holds the BRICS chairship for which time?

1. (A) First
2. (B) Second
3. (C) Third
4. (D) Fourth

Q84. Who won the women's title at the FIDE World Blitz Championship 2025 (Doha)?

1. (A) Marie Sebag
2. (B) Divya Deshmukh
3. (C) Bibisara Assaubayeva
4. (D) Anna Muzychuk

Q85. The traditional puppetry art 'Chadar Badoni' and the costume 'Dumka Chadar' of which Jharkhand tribe received a GI tag?

1. (A) Santhal
2. (B) Oraon
3. (C) Ho
4. (D) Munda

Q86. In the number 8 6 4 5 9 2 7 3, how many digits are there which are immediately preceded by an even digit and immediately followed by an odd digit?

1. (A) Two
2. (B) Three
3. (C) One
4. (D) None

Q87. Statements: M ≥ N, N ≥ O, O ≥ M. Conclusions: I. M = O II. N = O

1. (A) Only II follows
2. (B) Neither follows
3. (C) Only I follows
4. (D) Both follow

Q88. 81, 27, 9, 3, ?

1. (A) 1/3
2. (B) 1
3. (C) 2
4. (D) 0

Q89. Q is to the east of P, and R is to the south of Q. In which direction is R with respect to P?

1. (A) East
2. (B) South-West
3. (C) North-East
4. (D) South-East

Q90. P walks 20 m north, turns right and walks 30 m, turns right and walks 35 m, turns left and walks 15 m. How far is he from the start along the east direction?

1. (A) 30 m
2. (B) 45 m
3. (C) 15 m
4. (D) 60 m

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Q91. 5, 11, 23, 47, ?

1. (A) 95
2. (B) 93
3. (C) 94
4. (D) 96

Q92. A is the sister of B. C is the mother of B. D is the father of C. How is A related to D?

1. (A) Niece
2. (B) Granddaughter
3. (C) Grandmother
4. (D) Daughter

Q93. Statements: K ≤ L, M > L. Conclusions: I. M > K II. K < M

1. (A) Only I follows
2. (B) Only II follows
3. (C) Both follow
4. (D) Neither follows

Q94. A, C, F, J, O, ?

1. (A) S
2. (B) T
3. (C) U
4. (D) V

Q95. If the letters of the word EXAMINATION are arranged alphabetically, how many letters remain at the same position?

1. (A) 0
2. (B) 2
3. (C) 3
4. (D) 1

Q96. Arrange from the largest to the smallest: 1. Milky Way 2. Sun 3. Moon 4. Earth

1. (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
2. (B) 1, 2, 4, 3
3. (C) 2, 1, 4, 3
4. (D) 1, 4, 2, 3

Q97. A cube has its six faces painted with six different colours — red opposite blue, green opposite yellow, black opposite white. If red is on top, which colour is at the bottom?

1. (A) Green
2. (B) Blue
3. (C) Yellow
4. (D) White

Q98. D is the brother of B. M is the brother of B. K is the father of M. T is the wife of K. How is B related to T?

1. (A) Nephew
2. (B) Son
3. (C) Daughter
4. (D) Son or daughter

Q99. If only the first half of the alphabet (A to M) is written in reverse order, which letter will be 5th from the left?

1. (A) H
2. (B) J
3. (C) I
4. (D) K

Q100. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman?

1. (A) Cousin
2. (B) Nephew
3. (C) Uncle
4. (D) Son

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