LU LLB 3 Year Entrance Previous Year Question Paper Pattern – Model Paper Set 4 (2027) with Answers

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Q1. Acquisition and termination of citizenship are in:

1. (A) Schedule I of the Constitution
2. (B) Citizenship Act, 1955
3. (C) Various acts of the Parliament
4. (D) Part II of the Constitution

Q2. Supreme Court was set up:

1. (A) by a Presidential order
2. (B) by an act of Parliament
3. (C) under the Government of India Act, 1935
4. (D) by the Constitution

Q3. Which statement about a writ petition under Article 32 is correct?

1. (A) It is strictly governed by the Limitation Act
2. (B) The Limitation Act does not apply, but the Court may refuse relief for unreasonable delay
3. (C) It must be filed within 90 days
4. (D) It can be filed only after approaching the High Court

Q4. Who amongst the following cannot be appointed as Advocate General;

1. (A) An advocate of 66 years of age.
2. (B) An advocate who has not practiced in such State
3. (C) An advocate having 07 years of practice at Bar
4. (D) All of the above

Q5. In which of the following case compensation was first time awarded for violation of Fundamental Rights?

1. (A) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
2. (B) Dharam Singh v. State of Jammu and Kashmir
3. (C) Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar
4. (D) None of the above

Q6. The Attorney General of India may take part in Parliamentary proceedings. Whether he enjoys the Parliamentary privileges of Member of Parliament?

1. (A) Yes
2. (B) No provision is there in this respect in Constitution
3. (C) Yes to some extent
4. (D) Depends upon the decision of speaker

Q7. Which of the following does not find place in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

1. (A) Education for everyone
2. (B) Liberty of thought and expression
3. (C) Dignity of the individual
4. (D) Economic justice for all

Q8. Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj consists of

1. (A) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat samiti, Block Samiti
2. (B) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad
3. (C) Gram Panchayat, Zila Parishad, Block Samiti
4. (D) Gram Panchayat, Block samiti, Zila Parishad

Q9. Which type of democracy do we follow in India?

1. (A) Direct
2. (B) Presidential
3. (C) Representative
4. (D) Dictatorship

Q10. Which Part of the Constitution of India deals with Citizenship?

1. (A) Part I
2. (B) Part II
3. (C) Part III
4. (D) Part IV

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Q11. The doctrine of prospective over-ruling in relation to the powers of the Parliament to amend the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution, was applied in

1. (A) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
2. (B) I.C. Golak Nath v. State of Kerala
3. (C) Keshvanand Bharati v. State of Kerala
4. (D) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of State

Q12. In which one of the following case has the Supreme Court upheld the Constitutional validity of the Constitution (93rd Amendment) introducing Article 15(5)?

1. (A) TMA Pai Foundation v. State of Karnataka
2. (B) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
3. (C) Ashok Kumar Thakur v. Union of India
4. (D) M. Nagaraj v. Union of India

Q13. In which case it was held by Supreme Court that prisoner have right to speedy trail and free legal aid

1. (A) Kartar Singh vs State of UP
2. (B) Madhukeshwar vs State of Bihar
3. (C) Husainara Khatun vs Home secretary , state of Bihar
4. (D) A.K. Gopalan vs State of Madrash

Q14. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

1. (A) Environment Protection
2. (B) Assistance to Private Industries
3. (C) Uniform Civil Code
4. (D) Free Legal Aid

Q15. Which of the following articles of the constitution vests the executive power of the Union in the president?

1. (A) Article 54
2. (B) Article 53
3. (C) Article 51
4. (D) Article 52

Q16. In Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1996), the Supreme Court held that National Awards such as Bharat Ratna and Padma awards

1. (A) are titles prohibited under Article 18
2. (B) are not titles under Article 18, but should not be used as prefixes or suffixes to names
3. (C) can be used as prefixes to names
4. (D) are unconstitutional

Q17. Under Article 227 of the Constitution who has superintendence over all the courts and tribunals located in the territory to which it exercises jurisdiction?

1. (A) High Court
2. (B) State Government
3. (C) Central Government
4. (D) Supreme Court

Q18. Which out of the following is not a right covered by Article 21 of the Constitution?

1. (A) Right to Education
2. (B) Right to Strike
3. (C) Right to Health
4. (D) Right to safe drinking water

Q19. Which Article of the Constitution abolishes titles (except military and academic distinctions)?

1. (A) Article 14
2. (B) Article 17
3. (C) Article 18
4. (D) Article 21

Q20. In which the following cases, the supreme Court held that the Preamble is not the part of the Constitution

1. (A) Buckingham and Carantic Co. Ltd. v. Venkiah
2. (B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
3. (C) Keshavanand Bharti Case
4. (D) In re Berubari case

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Q21. The Pallava dynasty had their capital at :

1. (A) Vengi
2. (B) Thanjavur
3. (C) Madurai
4. (D) Kancheepuram

Q22. In which of the following sessions of Indian National Congress, the resolution of Swadeshi was adopted?

1. (A) Calcutta Session 1906
2. (B) Banaras Session 1905
3. (C) Madras Session 1903
4. (D) Bombay Session 1904

Q23. The capital of the Mauryan Empire was

1. (A) Rajgriha
2. (B) Ujjain
3. (C) Pataliputra
4. (D) Taxila

Q24. Who was the father of Civil Service?

1. (A) Lord William Bentinck
2. (B) Lord Wellesley
3. (C) Lord Cornwallis
4. (D) Lord Minto

Q25. The Jain Tirthankara Mahavira has been mentioned in the early Buddhist literature as

1. (A) Vesaliya
2. (B) Nigantha Nataputta
3. (C) Videhaputta
4. (D) Vardhamana

Q26. Buddha attained enlightenment (Nirvana) at

1. (A) Sarnath
2. (B) Bodh Gaya
3. (C) Lumbini
4. (D) Vaishali

Q27. The 'Drain of Wealth' theory was propounded by

1. (A) Dadabhai Naoroji
2. (B) M.G. Ranade
3. (C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
4. (D) R.C. Dutt

Q28. Alauddin Khilji assumed the title of

1. (A) Lakh Baksh
2. (B) Zil-i-Ilahi
3. (C) Sikandar-i-Sani
4. (D) Sultan-i-Azam

Q29. Who is believed by the Jainas to be the first Tirthankar?

1. (A) Rishabhadeva
2. (B) Neminath
3. (C) Mahavira
4. (D) Parshvanath

Q30. The newspaper 'Al-Hilal' was started by

1. (A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
2. (B) Tilak
3. (C) Muhammad Ali
4. (D) Gandhi

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Q31. Who convened the ‘Congress of Vienna’, 1815?

1. (A) Mussolini
2. (B) Napoleon Bonaparte
3. (C) Metternich
4. (D) Bismarck

Q32. The first Englishman to acquire the knowledge of Sanskrit was

1. (A) Sir William Jones
2. (B) Charles Wilkins
3. (C) Max Muller
4. (D) James Princep

Q33. The Junagadh rock inscription is associated with the Saka ruler

1. (A) Kanishka
2. (B) Nahapana
3. (C) Menander
4. (D) Rudradaman I

Q34. The Palaeolithic site famous for its prehistoric rock paintings is

1. (A) Mehrgarh
2. (B) Chirand
3. (C) Bhimbetka
4. (D) Burzahom

Q35. Who of the following also had the name Devanama Priyadasi?

1. (A) Bindusara
2. (B) Harsha
3. (C) Ashoka
4. (D) Chandragupta Maurya

Q36. The largest producer of iron ore in India is the state of

1. (A) Assam
2. (B) Kerala
3. (C) Odisha
4. (D) Punjab

Q37. The ozone layer that protects us from ultraviolet rays is found in the

1. (A) Mesosphere
2. (B) Stratosphere
3. (C) Troposphere
4. (D) Exosphere

Q38. The Nathu La pass connects Sikkim with

1. (A) Myanmar
2. (B) Bhutan
3. (C) Tibet (China)
4. (D) Nepal

Q39. The largest coal reserves in India are found in the state of

1. (A) Gujarat
2. (B) Rajasthan
3. (C) Jharkhand
4. (D) Kerala

Q40. The largest freshwater lake in India is

1. (A) Chilika Lake
2. (B) Dal Lake
3. (C) Wular Lake
4. (D) Sambhar Lake

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Q41. The most populous country in the world (2023) is

1. (A) China
2. (B) India
3. (C) Indonesia
4. (D) USA

Q42. The longest river in the world is the

1. (A) Mississippi
2. (B) Yangtze
3. (C) Nile
4. (D) Amazon

Q43. The climate of India is broadly of the

1. (A) desert type
2. (B) tropical monsoon type
3. (C) Mediterranean type
4. (D) equatorial type

Q44. The planet called the 'Blue Planet' is

1. (A) Earth
2. (B) Uranus
3. (C) Venus
4. (D) Neptune

Q45. Tea in India is grown mainly in the state of

1. (A) Punjab
2. (B) Rajasthan
3. (C) Gujarat
4. (D) Assam

Q46. The Khyber Pass connects the Indian subcontinent with

1. (A) Myanmar
2. (B) Afghanistan
3. (C) Nepal
4. (D) Tibet

Q47. The retreating (north-east) monsoon brings most of its rainfall to the

1. (A) Coromandel Coast
2. (B) Malabar Coast
3. (C) Gujarat coast
4. (D) Punjab plains

Q48. The Standard Meridian of India (82.5 degree E) passes through

1. (A) Bhopal
2. (B) Mirzapur
3. (C) Delhi
4. (D) Kolkata

Q49. The smallest country in the world by area is

1. (A) Monaco
2. (B) Nauru
3. (C) Vatican City
4. (D) Maldives

Q50. Which is the newest state of India, formed on 2 June 2014?

1. (A) Uttarakhand
2. (B) Telangana
3. (C) Chhattisgarh
4. (D) Jharkhand

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Q51. The SI unit of electric current is the

1. (A) Ampere
2. (B) Watt
3. (C) Ohm
4. (D) Volt

Q52. The plant cell wall is mainly made of

1. (A) chitin
2. (B) protein
3. (C) cellulose
4. (D) lipid

Q53. 'Marsh gas' is another name for

1. (A) methane
2. (B) propane
3. (C) butane
4. (D) ethane

Q54. The total number of atoms in a water molecule (H2O) is

1. (A) 1
2. (B) 2
3. (C) 3
4. (D) 4

Q55. The pH value of a neutral solution such as pure water is

1. (A) 1
2. (B) 7
3. (C) 0
4. (D) 14

Q56. The smallest bone in the human body is the

1. (A) tibia
2. (B) femur
3. (C) humerus
4. (D) stapes

Q57. A passenger lurches forward when a moving bus suddenly stops, due to the

1. (A) force of friction
2. (B) inertia of rest
3. (C) inertia of motion
4. (D) force of gravity

Q58. The tissue that conducts water from the roots to the leaves of a plant is the

1. (A) stomata
2. (B) phloem
3. (C) cambium
4. (D) xylem

Q59. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is the

1. (A) hygrometer
2. (B) manometer
3. (C) barometer
4. (D) thermometer

Q60. The chemical name of baking soda is

1. (A) sodium bicarbonate
2. (B) sodium carbonate
3. (C) calcium carbonate
4. (D) sodium chloride

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Q61. The hardest natural substance known is

1. (A) iron
2. (B) graphite
3. (C) gold
4. (D) diamond

Q62. The inert gas filled in electric (incandescent) bulbs is

1. (A) carbon dioxide
2. (B) hydrogen
3. (C) oxygen
4. (D) argon

Q63. Newton's first law of motion is also known as the law of

1. (A) action and reaction
2. (B) gravitation
3. (C) inertia
4. (D) acceleration

Q64. The acid found in sour milk and curd is

1. (A) citric acid
2. (B) oxalic acid
3. (C) lactic acid
4. (D) acetic acid

Q65. The number of bones in the adult human body is

1. (A) 200
2. (B) 206
3. (C) 306
4. (D) 212

Q66. Which is India's largest solar park by capacity (Bhadla Solar Park) located in?

1. (A) Gujarat
2. (B) Rajasthan
3. (C) Karnataka
4. (D) Madhya Pradesh

Q67. In which district did PM Modi lay the foundation stone of 2400 MW thermal power project at a cost of ₹ 25 thousand crores, which is said to be the largest private sector investment in Bihar?

1. (A) Darbhanga
2. (B) Patna
3. (C) Muzaffarpur
4. (D) Bhagalpur

Q68. The President announced the award of Vir Chakra to 4 Army, 9 Air Force, and 2 BSF soldiers on the eve of the 79th Independence Day. This award is given in which period?

1. (A) Wartime
2. (B) Peacetime
3. (C) All of the above
4. (D) None of these

Q69. Which Indian rocket system did PM Narendra Modi pitch to France during his visit in February 2025?

1. (A) Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launch System (MBRLS)
2. (B) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV)
3. (C) Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS)
4. (D) Satellite Launch Vehicle (SLV)

Q70. What percentage of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) has the Central Government permitted in insurance companies through the automatic route?

1. (A) 49%
2. (B) 100%
3. (C) 20%
4. (D) 74%

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Q71. Where was the 13th edition of naval exercise MILAN-2026 inaugurated, in which 74 countries participated?

1. (A) Kolkata
2. (B) Thiruvananthapuram
3. (C) Visakhapatnam
4. (D) Delhi

Q72. Which country built the world’s first 3D printed railway station?

1. (A) Japan
2. (B) India
3. (C) China
4. (D) America

Q73. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO)?

1. (A) Vienna
2. (B) Geneva
3. (C) New York
4. (D) Rome

Q74. India's indigenous fighter aircraft "Tejas" is manufactured by

1. (A) DRDO
2. (B) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
3. (C) Bharat Electronics Limited
4. (D) Bharat Dynamics Limited

Q75. The Uttar Pradesh Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) has how many elected seats?

1. (A) 403
2. (B) 404
3. (C) 400
4. (D) 425

Q76. Who won the 2025 Nobel Prize in Literature?

1. (A) Han Kang
2. (B) László Krasznahorkai
3. (C) Jon Fosse
4. (D) Annie Ernaux

Q77. Which UN agency provides international protection to refugees?

1. (A) UNDP
2. (B) UNRWA
3. (C) UNHCR
4. (D) UNICEF

Q78. The Central Government approved the establishment of quantum labs in 23 institutions by March 2026 under the National Quantum Mission (NQM). When was this mission launched?

1. (A) 2023
2. (B) 2024
3. (C) 2021
4. (D) 2020

Q79. Which is the largest animal in the world?

1. (A) Great White Shark
2. (B) Blue Whale
3. (C) Giraffe
4. (D) African Elephant

Q80. Kuchai Silk Saree of which district of Jharkhand received a GI tag?

1. (A) Chatra
2. (B) Godda
3. (C) Deoghar
4. (D) Seraikela-Kharsawan

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Q81. NITI Aayog replaced which body in January 2015?

1. (A) Finance Commission
2. (B) Planning Commission
3. (C) National Development Council
4. (D) Inter-State Council

Q82. In which northeastern state have scientists discovered a new reed snake species, ‘Calamaria mizoramensis’?

1. (A) Meghalaya
2. (B) Arunachal Pradesh
3. (C) Mizoram
4. (D) Assam

Q83. In which state was a new species of dragonfly discovered, named Liriothemis keralensis?

1. (A) Karnataka
2. (B) Telangana
3. (C) Kerala
4. (D) Tamil Nadu

Q84. The "Make in India" initiative was launched in which year?

1. (A) 2012
2. (B) 2014
3. (C) 2016
4. (D) 2018

Q85. In August 2025, which Chinese Foreign Minister visited India — the first such visit after the Galwan clash?

1. (A) Wang Yi
2. (B) Li Shangfu
3. (C) Dong Jun
4. (D) Li Qiang

Q86. If 'P' means '÷', 'Q' means '×', 'R' means '+' and 'S' means '–', then 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 = ?

1. (A) 59
2. (B) 53
3. (C) 57
4. (D) 51

Q87. Statements: No apple is an orange. All oranges are fruits. Conclusions: I. Some fruits are not apples. II. Some fruits are oranges.

1. (A) Only I follows
2. (B) Both follow
3. (C) Only II follows
4. (D) Neither follows

Q88. 0, 7, 26, 63, ?

1. (A) 125
2. (B) 126
3. (C) 123
4. (D) 124

Q89. If '+' means '×', '×' means '–', '–' means '÷' and '÷' means '+', then 8 + 4 ÷ 6 – 2 × 3 = ?

1. (A) 29
2. (B) 35
3. (C) 32
4. (D) 30

Q90. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?

1. (A) 125
2. (B) 123
3. (C) 129
4. (D) 127

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Q91. If LOVE = 54 (sum of letter positions), then HATE = ?

1. (A) 30
2. (B) 34
3. (C) 32
4. (D) 36

Q92. A student was asked to multiply a number by 8, but he divided it by 8 instead and got 4. What would be the correct answer?

1. (A) 128
2. (B) 32
3. (C) 64
4. (D) 256

Q93. Pointing to a woman, Mohan said, 'She is the daughter of the only child of my grandmother.' How is the woman related to Mohan?

1. (A) Cousin
2. (B) Aunt
3. (C) Sister
4. (D) Mother

Q94. Arrange in a meaningful order: 1. Word 2. Sentence 3. Letter 4. Paragraph 5. Chapter

1. (A) 3,2,1,4,5
2. (B) 3,1,2,4,5
3. (C) 3,1,4,2,5
4. (D) 1,3,2,4,5

Q95. AC, EG, IK, MO, ?

1. (A) QS
2. (B) RS
3. (C) PT
4. (D) QR

Q96. Statements: W = X, X ≥ Y, Y > Z. Conclusions: I. W ≥ Y II. X > Z

1. (A) Only II follows
2. (B) Both follow
3. (C) Only I follows
4. (D) Neither follows

Q97. A couple has two children. Ramla is the elder child. If one child is a boy named Suresh, and Ramla is not a boy, how is Ramla related to Suresh?

1. (A) Sister
2. (B) Cousin
3. (C) Brother
4. (D) Cannot be determined

Q98. Find the missing number: (3, 5, 34), (4, 6, 52), (2, 7, ?) — pattern a² + b²

1. (A) 54
2. (B) 52
3. (C) 53
4. (D) 51

Q99. Statements: D > E, E = F, F > G. Conclusions: I. D > G II. E > G

1. (A) Only I follows
2. (B) Only II follows
3. (C) Both follow
4. (D) Neither follows

Q100. Statements: Some chairs are tables. No table is a bench. Conclusions: I. Some chairs are not benches. II. All benches are chairs.

1. (A) Only I follows
2. (B) Both follow
3. (C) Neither follows
4. (D) Only II follows

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